(a) Short title.—This Act may be cited as the “Gun Violence Prevention and Community Safety Act of 2022”.

(b) Table of contents.—The table of contents for this Act is as follows:

Sec. 1. Short title; table of contents.

(a) In general.—Chapter 44 of title 18, United States Code, is amended by adding at the end the following:

(b) Clerical amendment.—The table of sections for such chapter is amended by adding at the end the following:

“935. License to own firearms and ammunition.”.

(c) Effective date.—The amendments made by subsections (a) and (b) shall take effect on the date that is 2 years after the date of enactment of this Act.

(d) Regulations.—Not later than 1 year after the date of enactment of this Act, the Attorney General shall promulgate regulations to carry out section 935 of title 18, United States Code, as added by subsection (a), including a regulation requiring that any firearm manufactured after the effective date described in subsection (c) of this section be legibly and conspicuously engraved or cast with the date on which the firearm was manufactured.

(a) In general.—Title I of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 (34 U.S.C. 10101 et seq.) is amended by adding at the end the following:

(b) Authorization of appropriations.—Section 1001(a) of title I of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 (34 U.S.C. 10261(a)) is amended by adding at the end the following:

“(29) There are authorized to be appropriated such sums as may be necessary to carry out part PP.”.

(a) In general.—Section 922 of title 18, United States Code, is amended—

(1) by repealing subsection (s);

(2) by redesignating subsection (t) as subsection (s);

(3) in subsection (s), as redesignated—

(A) in paragraph (1)—

(i) by redesignating subparagraphs (A) through (D) as subparagraphs (B) through (E), respectively;

(ii) by inserting before subparagraph (B), as so redesignated, the following:

“(A) beginning on the date on which the database is established under section 935(g), before completion of the transfer, the licensee verifies, using the database, that the purchaser has a valid—

“(i) Federal firearm owner's license issued under section 935; or

“(ii) qualifying State firearm license, as described in section 935(d)(2), for the State in which the transfer will occur;”; and

(iii) in subparagraph (C)(ii), as so redesignated, by striking “subparagraph (C)” and inserting “subparagraph (D)”;

(B) in paragraph (3)—

(i) by striking subparagraph (A);

(ii) by redesignating subparagraphs (B) and (C) as subparagraphs (A) and (B), respectively; and

(iii) in subparagraph (B)(ii), as so redesignated, by striking “(as defined in subsection (s)(8))”; and

(C) by adding at the end the following:

“(7) In this subsection, the term ‘chief law enforcement officer’ means the chief of police, the sheriff, or an equivalent officer or the designee of any such individual.”; and

(4) by inserting after subsection (s), as so redesignated, the following:

“(t) (1) (A) Beginning on the date that is 180 days after the date of enactment of the Gun Violence Prevention and Community Safety Act of 2022, it shall be unlawful for any person who is not a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer to transfer a firearm to any other person who is not so licensed, unless a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer has first taken possession of the firearm for the purpose of complying with subsection (s).

“(B) Upon taking possession of a firearm under subparagraph (A), a licensee shall comply with all requirements of this chapter as if the licensee were transferring the firearm from the inventory of the licensee to the unlicensed transferee.

“(C) If a transfer of a firearm described in subparagraph (A) will not be completed for any reason after a licensee takes possession of the firearm (including because the transfer of the firearm to, or receipt of the firearm by, the transferee would violate this chapter), the return of the firearm to the transferor by the licensee shall not constitute the transfer of a firearm for purposes of this chapter.

“(2) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to—

“(A) a law enforcement agency or any law enforcement officer, armed private security professional, or member of the armed forces, to the extent the officer, professional, or member is acting within the course and scope of employment and official duties;

“(B) a transfer that is a loan or bona fide gift between spouses, between domestic partners, between parents and their children, including stepparents and their stepchildren, between siblings, between aunts or uncles and their nieces or nephews, or between grandparents and their grandchildren, if the transferor has no reason to believe that the transferee—

“(i) will use or intends to use the firearm in a crime or is prohibited from possessing firearms under Federal, State, Tribal, or local law;

“(ii) has committed domestic violence (as defined in section 40002 of the Violence Against Women Act of 1994 (34 U.S.C. 12291) or by the jurisdiction in which the transfer is occurring or in which the transferee resides); or

“(iii) is subject to a protection order (as defined in section 2266);

“(C) a transfer to an executor, administrator, trustee, or personal representative of an estate or a trust that occurs by operation of law upon the death of another person;

“(D) a temporary transfer that is necessary to prevent imminent death, great bodily harm (including such harm to self, family, household members, or others), domestic violence, dating partner violence, sexual assault, stalking, or domestic abuse, if the possession by the transferee lasts only as long as immediately necessary to prevent the imminent death, great bodily harm, domestic violence, dating partner violence, sexual assault, stalking, or domestic abuse;

“(E) a transfer that is approved by the Attorney General under section 5812 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986; or

“(F) a temporary transfer if—

“(i) the transferor has no reason to believe that the transferee—

“(I) will use or intends to use the firearm in a crime or is prohibited from possessing firearms under Federal, State, Tribal, or local law;

“(II) has committed domestic violence (as defined in section 40002 of the Violence Against Women Act of 1994 (34 U.S.C. 12291) or by the jurisdiction in which the transfer is occurring or in which the transferee resides); or

“(III) is subject to a protection order (as defined in section 2266); and

“(ii) the transfer takes place and the transferee's possession of the firearm is exclusively—

“(I) at a shooting range or in a shooting gallery or other area designated for the purpose of target shooting;

“(II) while reasonably necessary for the purposes of hunting, trapping, or fishing, if the transferor—

“(aa) has no reason to believe that the transferee intends to use the firearm in a place where it is illegal; and

“(bb) has reason to believe that the transferee will comply with all licensing and permit requirements for such hunting, trapping, or fishing; or

“(III) in the presence of the transferor.”.

(b) Technical and conforming amendments.—

(1) CHAPTER 44 OF TITLE 18, UNITED STATES CODE.—

(A) SECTION 922.—Section 922(y)(2) of title 18, United States Code, is amended, in the matter preceding subparagraph (A), by striking “, (g)(5)(B), and (s)(3)(B)(v)(II)” and inserting “and (g)(5)(B)”.

(B) SECTION 925A.—Section 925A of title 18, United States Code, is amended, in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by striking “subsection (s) or (t) of section 922” and inserting “section 922(s)”.

(C) SECTION 925B.—Section 925B of title 18, United States Code, is amended by striking “section 922(t)” each place the term appears and inserting “section 922(s)”.

(2) BRADY HANDGUN VIOLENCE PREVENTION ACT.—Section 103(l) of the Brady Handgun Violence Prevention Act (34 U.S.C. 40901(l)) is amended, in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by striking “subsection (t)” and inserting “subsection (s)”.

(a) In general.—Section 922(s)(1) of title 18, United States Code, as amended by section 201 of this Act, is amended—

(1) in subparagraph (C)—

(A) in clause (i), by striking “; or” and inserting “; and”; and

(B) in clause (ii)—

(i) by striking “subject to subparagraph (D), 3 business” and inserting “not less than 7 business”; and

(ii) by striking “, and the” and all that follows and inserting “; and”;

(2) by striking subparagraph (D); and

(3) by redesignating subparagraph (E) as subparagraph (D).

(b) Technical and conforming amendments.—

(1) Section 103 of the Brady Handgun Violence Prevention Act (34 U.S.C. 40901) is amended by striking subsection (l).

(2) Section 12001(a)(3) of the Bipartisan Safer Communities Act (Public Law 117–159; 136 Stat. 1324) is amended by inserting “, except to the extent that those provisions of law were amended by the Gun Violence Prevention and Community Safety Act of 2022” before the period at the end.

(a) Definition.—Section 921(a) of title 18, United States Code, is amended—

(1) by striking paragraph (32) and inserting the following:

“(32) The term ‘intimate partner’ means, with respect to a person, the spouse of the person, a former spouse of the person, an individual who is a parent of a child of the person, an individual who cohabitates or has cohabited with the person, a dating partner or former dating partner (as defined in section 2266) of the person, and any other person similarly situated to a spouse who is protected by the domestic or family violence laws of the jurisdiction in which the abuse occurred or where the victim resides.”;

(2) in paragraph (33)—

(A) in subparagraph (A)—

(i) in the matter preceding clause (i), by striking “Except as provided in subparagraphs (B) and (C), the term” and inserting “The term”; and

(ii) in clause (ii)—

(I) by inserting “dating partner (as defined in section 2266),” after “spouse,” each place the term appears;

(II) by inserting “or” after “guardian”; and

(III) by striking “, or by a person who has a current or recent former dating relationship with the victim”; and

(B) by striking subparagraph (C); and

(3) by striking paragraph (37) and inserting the following:

“(37) (A) The term ‘misdemeanor crime of stalking’ means an offense that—

“(i) is a misdemeanor crime of stalking under Federal, State, Tribal, or municipal law; and

“(ii) is a course of harassment, intimidation, or surveillance of another person that—

“(I) places that person in reasonable fear of material harm to the health or safety of—

“(aa) that person;

“(bb) an immediate family member (as defined in section 115) of that person;

“(cc) a household member of that person; or

“(dd) a spouse or intimate partner of that person; or

“(II) causes, attempts to cause, or would reasonably be expected to cause emotional distress to a person described in item (aa), (bb), (cc), or (dd) of subclause (I).

“(B) A person shall not be considered to have been convicted of such an offense for purposes of this chapter, unless—

“(i) the person was represented by counsel in the case, or knowingly and intelligently waived the right to counsel in the case; and

“(ii) in the case of a prosecution for an offense described in this paragraph for which a person was entitled to a jury trial in the jurisdiction in which the case was tried, either—

“(I) the case was tried by a jury; or

“(II) the person knowingly and intelligently waived the right to have the case tried by a jury, by guilty plea or otherwise.

“(C) A person shall not be considered to have been convicted of such an offense for purposes of this chapter if the conviction has been expunged or set aside, or is an offense for which the person has been pardoned or has had civil rights restored (if the law of the applicable jurisdiction provides for the loss of civil rights under such an offense) unless the pardon, expungement, or restoration of civil rights expressly provides that the person may not ship, transport, possess, or receive firearms.”.

(b) Addition of stalking and those subject to court order.—Section 922 of title 18, United States Code, is amended—

(1) in subsection (d)—

(A) in paragraph (8)—

(i) in the matter preceding subparagraph (A), by striking “that restrains such person” and all that follows and inserting “described in subsection (g)(8);”; and

(ii) by striking subparagraphs (A) and (B); and

(B) in paragraph (9), by inserting before the semicolon at the end the following: “or a misdemeanor crime of stalking”; and

(2) in subsection (g)—

(A) by amending paragraph (8) to read as follows:

“(8) who is subject to a court order—

“(A) that was issued—

“(i) after a hearing of which such person received actual notice, and at which such person had an opportunity to participate; or

“(ii) in the case of an ex parte order, relative to which notice and opportunity to be heard are provided—

“(I) within the time required by State, tribal, or territorial law; and

“(II) in any event within a reasonable time after the order is issued, sufficient to protect the due process rights of the person;

“(B) that restrains such person from—

“(i) harassing, stalking, or threatening an intimate partner of such person or child of such intimate partner or person, or engaging in other conduct that would place an intimate partner in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the partner or child; or

“(ii) intimidating or dissuading a witness from testifying in court; and

“(C) that—

“(i) includes a finding that such person represents a credible threat to the physical safety of such individual described in subparagraph (B); or

“(ii) by its terms explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against such individual described in subparagraph (B) that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury; or”; and

(B) in paragraph (9), by inserting before the comma at the end the following: “or a misdemeanor crime of stalking”.

Chapter 44 of title 18, United States Code, is amended—

(1) in section 921(a)(15)—

(A) by striking “who has fled” and inserting the following: “who—

“(A) has fled”;

(B) by striking the period at the end and inserting “; or”; and

(C) by adding at the end the following:

“(B) is subject to an outstanding arrest warrant issued by any court.”; and

(2) in section 922(g)(2), by inserting “knows that he or she” after “who”.

(a) In general.—Chapter 44 of title 18, United States Code, is amended—

(1) in section 922—

(A) in subsection (a)—

(i) in paragraph (2)(A), by striking “(b)(3)” and inserting “(b)(2)”;

(ii) in paragraph (3), by striking “(b)(3)” and inserting “(b)(2)”;

(iii) in paragraph (9), by striking the period at the end and inserting “; and”; and

(iv) by adding at the end the following:

“(10) for any person to transfer, sell, trade, give, transport, or deliver any firearm or ammunition to any person who the transferor knows or has reasonable cause to believe is less than 21 years of age, except that this paragraph shall not apply to—

“(A) a temporary transfer of a firearm or ammunition to a person who is less than 21 years of age or to the possession or use of a firearm or ammunition by a person who is less than 21 years of age if the firearm or ammunition is possessed and used by the person—

“(i) in the course of employment, in the course of ranching or farming related to activities at the residence of the person (or on property used for ranching or farming at which the person, with the permission of the property owner or lessee, is performing activities related to the operation of the farm or ranch), target practice, hunting, or a course of instruction in the safe and lawful use of a firearm;

“(ii) with the prior written consent of the person’s parent or guardian who is not prohibited by Federal, State, or local law from possessing a firearm, except—

“(I) during transportation by the person of an unloaded firearm in a locked container directly from the place of transfer to a place at which an activity described in clause (i) is to take place and transportation by the person of that firearm, unloaded and in a locked container, directly from the place at which such an activity took place to the transferor; or

“(II) with respect to ranching or farming activities as described in clause (i), a person who is less than 21 years of age may possess and use a firearm or ammunition with the prior written approval of the person’s parent or legal guardian and at the direction of an adult who is not prohibited by Federal, State or local law from possessing a firearm;

“(iii) the person has the prior written consent in the person’s possession at all times when a firearm or ammunition is in the possession of the person; and

“(iv) in accordance with State and local law;

“(B) a person who is less than 21 years of age who is a member of the Armed Forces of the United States or the National Guard who possesses or is armed with a firearm or ammunition in the line of duty;

“(C) a transfer by inheritance of title (but not possession) of a firearm or ammunition to a person who is less than 21 years of age; or

“(D) the possession of a firearm or ammunition by a person who is less than 21 years of age for the purpose described in subsection (x)(3)(D).”;

(B) in subsection (b)—

(i) by striking paragraph (1);

(ii) by redesignating paragraphs (2) through (5) as paragraphs (1) through (4), respectively; and

(iii) in the undesignated matter following paragraph (4), as so redesignated—

(I) in the first sentence, by striking “Paragraphs (1), (2), (3), and (4)” and inserting “Subsection (a)(10) and paragraphs (1), (2), and (3)”; and

(II) in the second sentence, by striking “Paragraph (4)” and inserting “Paragraph (3)”; and

(C) in subsection (c)(1), by striking “, in the case of any firearm other than a shotgun or a rifle, I am twenty-one years or more of age, or that, in the case of a shotgun or a rifle, I am eighteen years or more of age” and inserting “I am 21 years or more of age”; and

(2) in section 924—

(A) in subsection (a)(6), by striking “handgun” each place the term appears and inserting “firearm”; and

(B) in subsection (d)(3)(C), by striking “922(b)(3)” each place the term appears and inserting “922(b)(2)”.

(b) Technical and conforming amendments.—

(1) Section 4182(d) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 is amended by striking “922(b)(5)” and inserting “922(b)(4)”.

(2) Section 161A(b) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2201a(b)) is amended, in the matter preceding paragraph (1), by striking “(b)(2), (b)(4)” and inserting “(b)(1), (b)(3)”.

Section 922(z) of title 18, United States Code, is amended by adding at the end the following:

“(4) SECURE GUN STORAGE BY OWNERS.—

“(A) OFFENSE.—

“(i) IN GENERAL.—Except as provided in clause (ii), it shall be unlawful for a person to store or keep any firearm that has moved in, or that has otherwise affected, interstate or foreign commerce on the premises of a residence under the control of the person if the person knows, or reasonably should know, that—

“(I) a minor is likely to gain access to the firearm without the permission of the parent or guardian of the minor; or

“(II) a resident of the residence is ineligible to possess a firearm under Federal, State, or local law.

“(ii) EXCEPTION.—Clause (i) shall not apply to a person if the person—

“(I) keeps the firearm—

“(aa) secure using a secure gun storage or safety device; or

“(bb) in a location which a reasonable person would believe to be secure; or

“(II) carries the firearm on his or her person or within such close proximity thereto that the person can readily retrieve and use the firearm as if the person carried the firearm on his or her person.

“(B) PENALTY.—

“(i) IN GENERAL.—Any person who violates subparagraph (A) shall be subject to a $500 civil penalty per violation and shall not be subject to the penalty under section 924(a)(1) by reason of subparagraph (D) of that section.

“(ii) ENHANCED PENALTY.—If a person violates subparagraph (A) and a minor or a resident who is ineligible to possess a firearm under Federal, State, or local law obtains the firearm, the person shall be fined under this title, imprisoned for not more than 5 years, or both.

“(iii) FORFEITURE OF IMPROPERLY STORED FIREARM.—Any firearm stored in violation of subparagraph (A) shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture in accordance with the procedures described in section 924(d).

“(C) MINOR DEFINED.—In this paragraph, the term ‘minor’ means an individual who is less than 18 years of age.”.

Section 922(z) of title 18, United States Code, is amended by striking “handgun” each place it appears and inserting “firearm”.

(a) In general.—The Consumer Product Safety Act (15 U.S.C. 2051 et seq.) is amended by adding at the end the following:

(b) Conforming amendment.—Section 1 of the Consumer Product Safety Act is amended by adding at the end of the table of contents the following:

“Sec. 43. Consumer product safety standards for firearm locks and firearm safes. ”.

(c) Authorization of appropriations.—There are authorized to be appropriated to the Consumer Product Safety Commission $2,000,000 to carry out the provisions of section 43 of the Consumer Product Safety Act, as added by subsection (a), such sums to remain available until expended.

(a) Extension of Gun-Free School Zones Act to colleges and universities.—Section 921(a) of title 18, United States Code, is amended—

(1) in paragraph (26), by striking “public, parochial or private” each place that term appears; and

(2) in paragraph (27)—

(A) by striking “means a school” and inserting the following: “means—

“(A) a public, parochial, or private school”; and

(B) by striking the period at the end and inserting the following: “; and

“(B) an institution of higher education, as defined in section 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1002).”.

(b) Elimination of exception for licensed individuals.—Section 922(q)(2)(B) of title 18, United States Code, is amended—

(1) by striking clause (ii); and

(2) by redesignating clauses (iii) through (vii) as clauses (ii) through (vi), respectively.

(a) Definitions.—In this section:

(1) ELIGIBLE ENTITY.—The term “eligible entity” means—

(A) a State or Indian Tribe—

(i) that enacts legislation described in subsection (c);

(ii) with respect to which the Attorney General determines that the legislation described in clause (i) complies with the requirements under subsection (c)(1); and

(iii) that certifies to the Attorney General that the State or Indian Tribe shall—

(I) use the grant for the purposes described in subsection (b)(2); and

(II) allocate not less than 25 percent and not more than 70 percent of the amount received under a grant under subsection (b) for the development and dissemination of training for law enforcement officers in accordance with subsection (b)(4); or

(B) a unit of local government or other public or private entity that—

(i) is located in a State or in the territory under the jurisdiction of an Indian Tribe that meets the requirements described in clauses (i) and (ii) of subparagraph (A); and

(ii) certifies to the Attorney General that the unit of local government or entity shall—

(I) use the grant for the purposes described in subsection (b)(2); and

(II) allocate not less than 25 percent and not more than 70 percent of the amount received under a grant under this section for the development and dissemination of training for law enforcement officers in accordance with subsection (b)(4).

(2) EXTREME RISK PROTECTION ORDER.—The term “extreme risk protection order” means a written order or warrant, issued by a State or Tribal court or signed by a magistrate (or other comparable judicial officer), the primary purpose of which is to reduce the risk of firearm-related death or injury by doing 1 or more of the following:

(A) Prohibiting a named individual from having under the custody or control of the individual, owning, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm.

(B) Having a firearm removed or requiring the surrender of firearms from a named individual.

(3) FIREARM.—The term “firearm” has the meaning given the term in section 921 of title 18, United States Code.

(4) INDIAN TRIBE.—The term “Indian Tribe” has the meaning given the term “Indian tribe” in section 1709 of title I of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 (34 U.S.C. 10389).

(5) LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICER.—The term “law enforcement officer” means a public servant authorized by Federal, State, local, or Tribal law or by a Federal, State, local, or Tribal government agency to—

(A) engage in or supervise the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of an offense; or

(B) supervise sentenced criminal offenders.

(6) PETITIONER.—The term “petitioner” means an individual authorized under State or Tribal law to petition for an extreme risk protection order.

(7) RESPONDENT.—The term “respondent” means an individual named in the petition for an extreme risk protection order or subject to an extreme risk protection order.

(8) STATE.—The term “State” means—

(A) a State;

(B) the District of Columbia;

(C) the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico; and

(D) any other territory or possession of the United States.

(9) UNIT OF LOCAL GOVERNMENT.—The term “unit of local government” has the meaning given the term in section 901 of title I of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 (34 U.S.C. 10251).

(b) Grant program established.—

(1) IN GENERAL.—The Attorney General shall establish a program under which, from amounts made available to carry out this section, the Attorney General may make grants to eligible entities to assist in carrying out the provisions of the legislation described in subsection (c).

(2) USE OF FUNDS.—Funds awarded under this subsection may be used by an applicant to—

(A) enhance the capacity of law enforcement agencies and the courts of a State, unit of local government, or Indian Tribe by providing personnel, training, technical assistance, data collection, and other resources to carry out enacted legislation described in subsection (c);

(B) train judges, court personnel, health care and legal professionals, and law enforcement officers to more accurately identify individuals whose access to firearms poses a danger of causing harm to themselves or others by increasing the risk of firearms suicide or interpersonal violence;

(C) develop and implement law enforcement and court protocols, forms, and orders so that law enforcement agencies and the courts may carry out the provisions of the enacted legislation described in subsection (c) in a safe, equitable, and effective manner, including through the removal and storage of firearms pursuant to extreme risk protection orders under the enacted legislation; and

(D) raise public awareness and understanding of the enacted legislation described in subsection (c), including through subgrants to community-based organizations for the training of community members, so that extreme risk protection orders may be issued in appropriate situations to reduce the risk of firearms-related death and injury.

(3) APPLICATION.—An eligible entity desiring a grant under this subsection shall submit to the Attorney General an application at such time, in such manner, and containing or accompanied by such information as the Attorney General may reasonably require.

(4) TRAINING.—

(A) IN GENERAL.—A recipient of a grant under this subsection shall provide training to law enforcement officers, including officers of relevant Federal, State, local, and Tribal law enforcement agencies, in the safe, impartial, effective, and equitable use and administration of extreme risk protection orders, including training to address—

(i) bias based on race and racism, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, religion, language proficiency, mental health condition, disability, and classism in the use and administration of extreme risk protection orders;

(ii) the appropriate use of extreme risk protection orders in cases of domestic violence, including the applicability of other policies and protocols to address domestic violence in situations that may also involve extreme risk protection orders and the necessity of safety planning with the victim before a law enforcement officer petitions for and executes an extreme risk protection order, if applicable;

(iii) interacting with persons with a mental illness or emotional distress, including de-escalation and crisis intervention; and

(iv) best practices for referring persons subject to extreme risk protection orders and associated victims of violence to social service providers that may be available in the jurisdiction and appropriate for those individuals, including health care, mental health, substance abuse, and legal services, employment and vocational services, housing assistance, case management, and veterans and disability benefits.

(B) CONSULTATION WITH EXPERTS.—A recipient of a grant under this subsection, in developing law enforcement training required under subparagraph (A), shall seek advice from domestic violence service providers (including culturally specific (as defined in section 40002 of the Violence Against Women Act of 1994 (34 U.S.C. 12291)) organizations), social service providers, suicide prevention advocates, violence intervention specialists, law enforcement agencies, mental health disability experts, and other community groups working to reduce suicides and violence, including domestic violence, within the State or the territory under the jurisdiction of the Indian Tribe, as applicable, that enacted the legislation described in subsection (c) that enabled the grant recipient to be an eligible entity.

(5) AUTHORIZATION OF APPROPRIATIONS.—There are authorized to be appropriated such sums as are necessary to carry out this section.

(c) Eligibility for extreme risk protection order grant program.—

(1) REQUIREMENTS.—Legislation described in this subsection is legislation that establishes requirements that are substantially similar to the following:

(A) PETITION FOR EXTREME RISK PROTECTION ORDER.—A petitioner, including a law enforcement officer, may submit a petition to a State or Tribal court, on a form designed by the court or a State or Tribal agency, that—

(i) describes the facts and circumstances justifying that an extreme risk protection order be issued against the named individual; and

(ii) is signed by the applicant, under oath.

(B) NOTICE AND DUE PROCESS.—The individual named in a petition for an extreme risk protection order as described in subparagraph (A) shall be given written notice of the petition and an opportunity to be heard on the matter in accordance with this paragraph.

(C) ISSUANCE OF EXTREME RISK PROTECTION ORDERS.—

(i) HEARING.—

(I) IN GENERAL.—Upon receipt of a petition described in subparagraph (A) or request of an individual named in such a petition, the court shall order a hearing to be held within a reasonable time, and not later than 30 days after the date of the petition or request.

(II) DETERMINATION.—If the court finds at the hearing ordered under subclause (I), by a preponderance of the evidence or according to a higher evidentiary standard established by the State or Indian Tribe, that the respondent poses a danger of causing harm to self or others by having access to a firearm, the court may issue an extreme risk protection order.

(ii) DURATION OF EXTREME RISK PROTECTION ORDER.—An extreme risk protection order shall be in effect—

(I) until an order terminating or superseding the extreme risk protection order is issued; or

(II) for a set period of time.

(D) EX PARTE EXTREME RISK PROTECTION ORDERS.—

(i) IN GENERAL.—Upon receipt of a petition described in subparagraph (A), the court may issue an ex parte extreme risk protection order, if—

(I) the petition for an extreme risk protection order alleges that the respondent poses a danger of causing harm to self or others by having access to a firearm; and

(II) the court finds there is probable cause to believe, or makes a finding according to a higher evidentiary standard established by the State or Indian Tribe, that the respondent poses a danger of causing harm to self or others by having access to a firearm.

(ii) DURATION OF EX PARTE EXTREME RISK PROTECTION ORDER.—An ex parte extreme risk protection order shall remain in effect only until the hearing required under subparagraph (C)(i).

(E) STORAGE OF REMOVED FIREARMS.—

(i) AVAILABILITY FOR RETURN.—All firearms removed or surrendered pursuant to an extreme risk protection order shall only be available for return to the named individual when the individual has regained eligibility under Federal and State law, and, where applicable, Tribal law to possess firearms.

(ii) CONSENT REQUIRED FOR DISPOSAL OR DESTRUCTION.—Firearms owned by a named individual may not be disposed of or destroyed during the period of the extreme risk protection order without the consent of the named individual.

(F) NOTIFICATION.—

(i) IN GENERAL.—

(I) REQUIREMENT.—A State or Tribal court that issues an extreme risk protection order shall notify the Attorney General or the comparable State or Tribal agency, as applicable, of the order as soon as practicable or within a designated period of time.

(II) FORM AND MANNER.—A State or Tribal court shall submit a notification under subclause (I) in an electronic format, in a manner prescribed by the Attorney General or the comparable State or Tribal agency.

(ii) UPDATE OF DATABASES.—As soon as practicable or within the time period designated by State or Tribal law after receiving a notification under clause (i), the Attorney General or the comparable State or Tribal agency shall ensure that the extreme risk protection order is reflected in the National Instant Criminal Background Check System.

(2) ADDITIONAL PROVISIONS.—Legislation described in this subsection may—

(A) provide procedures for the termination of an extreme risk protection order;

(B) provide procedures for the renewal of an extreme risk protection order;

(C) establish burdens and standards of proof for issuance of orders described in paragraph (1) that are substantially similar to or higher than the burdens and standards of proof set forth in that paragraph;

(D) limit the individuals who may submit a petition described in paragraph (1), provided that, at a minimum, 1 or more law enforcement officers are authorized to do so; and

(E) include any other authorizations or requirements that the State or Tribal authorities determine appropriate.

(3) ANNUAL REPORT.—Not later than 1 year after the date on which an eligible entity receives a grant under subsection (b), and annually thereafter for the duration of the grant period, the entity shall submit to the Attorney General a report that includes, with respect to the preceding year—

(A) the number of petitions for ex parte extreme risk protection orders filed, as well as the number of such orders issued and the number denied, disaggregated by—

(i) the jurisdiction;

(ii) the individual authorized under State or Tribal law to petition for an extreme risk protection order, including the relationship of the individual to the respondent; and

(iii) the alleged danger posed by the respondent, including whether the danger involved a risk of suicide, unintentional injury, domestic violence, or other interpersonal violence;

(B) the number of petitions for extreme risk protection orders filed, as well as the number of such orders issued and the number denied, disaggregated by—

(i) the jurisdiction;

(ii) the individual authorized under State or Tribal law to petition for an extreme risk protection order, including the relationship of the individual to the respondent; and

(iii) the alleged danger posed by the respondent, including whether the danger involved a risk of suicide, unintentional injury, domestic violence, or other interpersonal violence;

(C) the number of petitions for renewals of extreme risk protection orders filed, as well as the number of such orders issued and the number denied;

(D) the number of cases in which a court imposed a penalty for false reporting or frivolous petitions;

(E) demographic data of petitioners, including race, ethnicity, national origin, sex, gender, age, disability, and English language proficiency, if available;

(F) demographic data of respondents, including race, ethnicity, national origin, sex, gender, age, disability, and English language proficiency, if available; and

(G) the number of firearms removed, if available.

(a) In general.—Chapter 44 of title 18, United States Code, as amended by section 101 of this Act, is amended by adding at the end the following:

(b) Technical and conforming amendments.—

(1) TABLE OF SECTIONS.—The table of sections for chapter 44 of title 18, United States Code, as amended by section 101 of this Act, is amended by adding at the end the following:

“936. Extreme risk protection orders.”.

(2) FORFEITURE.—Section 924(d)(3) of title 18, United States Code, is amended—

(A) in subparagraph (F), by striking “and” at the end;

(B) in subparagraph (G), by striking the period and inserting “; and”; and

(C) by adding at the end the following:

“(H) any attempt to violate an extreme risk protection order issued under section 936.”.

(a) Definition.—Section 921(a) of title 18, United States Code is amended by adding at the end the following:

“(38) The term ‘extreme risk protection order’ has the meaning given the term in section 401 of the Gun Violence Prevention and Community Safety Act of 2022”..”.

(b) Prohibitions.—Section 922 of title 18, United States Code, is amended—

(1) in subsection (d)—

(A) by redesignating paragraphs (10) and (11) as paragraphs (11) and (12), respectively; and

(B) by inserting after paragraph (9) the following:

“(10) is subject to an extreme risk protection order that—

“(A) was issued after a hearing of which such person received actual notice, and at which such person had an opportunity to participate;

“(B) prevents such person from possessing or receiving firearms; and

“(C) includes a finding that such person poses a danger of harm to self or others.”; and

(2) in subsection (g)—

(A) in paragraph (8), by striking “or” at the end;

(B) in paragraph (9), by striking the comma at the end and inserting “; or”; and

(C) by inserting after paragraph (9) the following:

“(10) is subject to an extreme risk protection order that—

“(A) was issued after a hearing of which such person received actual notice, and at which such person had an opportunity to participate;

“(B) prevents such person from possessing or receiving firearms; and

“(C) includes a finding that such person poses a danger of harm to self or others,”.

Section 534 of title 28, United States Code, is amended—

(1) in subsection (a)—

(A) by redesignating paragraphs (4) and (5) as paragraphs (5) and (6), respectively; and

(B) by inserting after paragraph (3) the following:

“(4) acquire, collect, classify, and preserve records from Federal, tribal, and State courts and other agencies identifying individuals subject to extreme risk protection orders, as defined in section 401 of the Gun Violence Prevention and Community Safety Act of 2022, provided that such records shall be destroyed if the orders expire or are terminated or dissolved;”;

(2) in subsection (b)—

(A) by striking “(a)(5)” and inserting “(a)(6)”; and

(B) by striking “(a)(4)” and inserting “(a)(5)”; and

(3) by adding at the end the following:

“(g) Federal, tribal, and State criminal justice agencies and criminal and civil courts may—

“(1) include extreme risk protection orders, as defined in section 401 of the Gun Violence Prevention and Community Safety Act of 2022, in national crime information databases, as defined in subsection (f)(3) of this section; and

“(2) have access to information regarding extreme risk protection orders through the national crime information databases, as defined in subsection (f)(3) of this section.”.

Section 3(1) of the NICS Improvement Amendments Act of 2007 (34 U.S.C. 40903(1)) is amended by striking “section 922(g)(8)” and inserting “paragraph (8) or (10) of section 922(g)”.

(a) Definitions.—In this section, the terms “extreme risk protection order”, “Indian Tribe”, and “State” have the meanings given those terms in section 401(a).

(b) Full faith and credit required.—Any extreme risk protection order issued under a State or Tribal law enacted in accordance with this title shall be accorded the same full faith and credit by the court of another State or Indian Tribe (referred to in this subsection as the “enforcing State or Indian Tribe”) and enforced by the court and law enforcement personnel of the other State or Tribal government as if it were the order of the enforcing State or Indian Tribe.

(c) Applicability to extreme risk protection orders.—

(1) IN GENERAL.—Subsection (b) shall apply to an extreme risk protection order issued by a State or Tribal court if—

(A) the court has jurisdiction over the parties and matter under the law of the State or Indian Tribe; and

(B) reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard is given to the person against whom the order is sought sufficient to protect that person’s right to due process.

(2) EX PARTE EXTREME RISK PROTECTION ORDERS.—For purposes of paragraph (1)(B), in the case of an ex parte extreme risk protection order, notice and opportunity to be heard shall be provided within the time required by State or Tribal law, and in any event within a reasonable time after the order is issued, sufficient to protect the due process rights of the respondent.

(d) Tribal court jurisdiction.—For purposes of this section, a court of an Indian Tribe shall have full civil jurisdiction to issue and enforce an extreme risk protection order involving any person, including the authority to enforce any order through civil contempt proceedings, to exclude violators from Indian land, and to use other appropriate mechanisms, in matters arising anywhere in the Indian country (as defined in section 1151 of title 18, United States Code) of the Indian Tribe or otherwise within the authority of the Indian Tribe.

(a) In general.—Section 921(a) of title 18, United States Code, as amended by section 403 of this Act, is amended—

(1) by inserting after paragraph (30) the following:

“(31) The term ‘semiautomatic pistol’ means any repeating pistol that—

“(A) utilizes a portion of the energy of a firing cartridge to extract the fired cartridge case and chamber the next round; and

“(B) requires a separate pull of the trigger to fire each cartridge.”; and

(2) by adding at the end the following:

“(39) The term ‘semiautomatic shotgun’ means any repeating shotgun that—

“(A) utilizes a portion of the energy of a firing shell to extract the fired shell casing and chamber the next round; and

“(B) requires a separate pull of the trigger to fire each shell.

“(40) The term ‘semiautomatic assault weapon’ means any of the following, regardless of country of manufacture or caliber of ammunition accepted:

“(A) A semiautomatic rifle that—

“(i) has the capacity to accept a detachable ammunition feeding device; and

“(ii) has—

“(I) a pistol grip;

“(II) a forward grip;

“(III) a folding, telescoping, or detachable stock, or a stock that is otherwise foldable or adjustable in a manner that operates to reduce the length, size, or any other dimension, or otherwise enhances the concealability, of the weapon;

“(IV) a grenade launcher;

“(V) a barrel shroud; or

“(VI) a threaded barrel.

“(B) A semiautomatic rifle that has a fixed ammunition feeding device with the capacity to accept more than 15 rounds, except for an attached tubular device designed to accept, and capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire ammunition.

“(C) Any part, combination of parts, component, device, attachment, or accessory that is designed or functions to accelerate the rate of fire of a semiautomatic firearm but not convert the semiautomatic firearm into a machinegun.

“(D) A semiautomatic pistol that—

“(i) has an ammunition feeding device that is not a fixed ammunition feeding device; and

“(ii) has—

“(I) a threaded barrel;

“(II) a second pistol grip;

“(III) a barrel shroud;

“(IV) the capacity to accept a detachable ammunition feeding device at some location outside of the pistol grip;

“(V) a semiautomatic version of an automatic firearm;

“(VI) a manufactured weight of 50 ounces or more when unloaded; or

“(VII) a buffer tube, stabilizing brace, or similar component that protrudes horizontally behind the pistol grip, and is designed or redesigned to allow or facilitate a firearm to be fired from the shoulder.

“(E) A semiautomatic pistol with a fixed ammunition feeding device that has the capacity to accept more than 15 rounds.

“(F) A semiautomatic shotgun that—

“(i) has—

“(I) the capacity to accept a detachable ammunition feeding device; or

“(II) a fixed ammunition feeding device that has the capacity to accept more than 5 rounds; and

“(ii) has—

“(I) a folding, telescoping, or detachable stock;

“(II) a pistol grip or bird's head grip;

“(III) a forward grip; or

“(IV) a grenade launcher.

“(G) Any shotgun with a revolving cylinder.

“(H) All of the following rifles, copies, duplicates, variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any such weapon thereof:

“(i) All AK types, including the following:

“(I) AK, AK47, AK47S, AK–74, AKM, AKS, ARM, MAK90, MISR, NHM90, NHM91, Rock River Arms LAR–47, SA85, SA93, Vector Arms AK–47, VEPR, WASR–10, and WUM.

“(II) IZHMASH Saiga AK.

“(III) MAADI AK47 and ARM.

“(IV) Norinco 56S, 56S2, 84S, and 86S.

“(V) Poly Technologies AK47 and AKS.

“(VI) SKS with a detachable ammunition feeding device.

“(ii) All AR types, including the following:

“(I) AR–10.

“(II) AR–15.

“(III) Alexander Arms Overmatch Plus 16.

“(IV) Armalite M15 22LR Carbine.

“(V) Armalite M15–T.

“(VI) Barrett REC7.

“(VII) Beretta AR–70.

“(VIII) Black Rain Ordnance Recon Scout.

“(IX) Bushmaster ACR.

“(X) Bushmaster Carbon 15.

“(XI) Bushmaster MOE series.

“(XII) Bushmaster XM15.

“(XIII) Chiappa Firearms MFour rifles.

“(XIV) Colt Match Target rifles.

“(XV) CORE Rifle Systems CORE15 rifles.

“(XVI) Daniel Defense M4A1 rifles.

“(XVII) Devil Dog Arms 15 Series rifles.

“(XVIII) Diamondback DB15 rifles.

“(XIX) DoubleStar AR rifles.

“(XX) DPMS Tactical rifles.

“(XXI) DSA Inc. ZM–4 Carbine.

“(XXII) Heckler & Koch MR556.

“(XXIII) High Standard HSA–15 rifles.

“(XXIV) Jesse James Nomad AR–15 rifle.

“(XXV) Knight’s Armament SR–15.

“(XXVI) Lancer L15 rifles.

“(XXVII) MGI Hydra Series rifles.

“(XXVIII) Mossberg MMR Tactical rifles.

“(XXIX) Noreen Firearms BN 36 rifle.

“(XXX) Olympic Arms.

“(XXXI) POF USA P415.

“(XXXII) Precision Firearms AR rifles.

“(XXXIII) Remington R–15 rifles.

“(XXXIV) Rhino Arms AR rifles.

“(XXXV) Rock River Arms LAR–15.

“(XXXVI) Sig Sauer SIG516 rifles and MCX rifles.

“(XXXVII) Smith & Wesson M&P15 rifles.

“(XXXVIII) Stag Arms AR rifles.

“(XXXIX) Sturm, Ruger & Co. SR556 and AR–556 rifles.

“(XL) Uselton Arms Air-Lite M–4 rifles.

“(XLI) Windham Weaponry AR rifles.

“(XLII) WMD Guns Big Beast.

“(XLIII) Yankee Hill Machine Company, Inc. YHM–15 rifles.

“(iii) Barrett M107A1.

“(iv) Barrett M82A1.

“(v) Beretta CX4 Storm.

“(vi) Calico Liberty Series.

“(vii) CETME Sporter.

“(viii) Daewoo K–1, K–2, Max 1, Max 2, AR 100, and AR 110C.

“(ix) Fabrique Nationale/FN Herstal FAL, LAR, 22 FNC, 308 Match, L1A1 Sporter, PS90, SCAR, and FS2000.

“(x) Feather Industries AT–9.

“(xi) Galil Model AR and Model ARM.

“(xii) Hi-Point Carbine.

“(xiii) HK–91, HK–93, HK–94, HK–PSG–1, and HK USC.

“(xiv) IWI TAVOR, Galil ACE rifle.

“(xv) Kel-Tec Sub-2000, SU–16, and RFB.

“(xvi) SIG AMT, SIG PE–57, Sig Sauer SG 550, Sig Sauer SG 551, and SIG MCX.

“(xvii) Springfield Armory SAR–48.

“(xviii) Steyr AUG.

“(xix) Sturm, Ruger & Co. Mini-14 Tactical Rifle M–14/20CF.

“(xx) All Thompson rifles, including the following:

“(I) Thompson M1SB.

“(II) Thompson T1100D.

“(III) Thompson T150D.

“(IV) Thompson T1B.

“(V) Thompson T1B100D.

“(VI) Thompson T1B50D.

“(VII) Thompson T1BSB.

“(VIII) Thompson T1C.

“(IX) Thompson T1D.

“(X) Thompson T1SB.

“(XI) Thompson T5.

“(XII) Thompson T5100D.

“(XIII) Thompson TM1.

“(XIV) Thompson TM1C.

“(xxi) UMAREX UZI rifle.

“(xxii) UZI Mini Carbine, UZI Model A Carbine, and UZI Model B Carbine.

“(xxiii) Valmet M62S, M71S, and M78.

“(xxiv) Vector Arms UZI Type.

“(xxv) Weaver Arms Nighthawk.

“(xxvi) Wilkinson Arms Linda Carbine.

“(I) All of the following pistols, copies, duplicates, variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any such weapon thereof:

“(i) All AK types, including the following:

“(I) Centurion 39 AK pistol.

“(II) CZ Scorpion pistol.

“(III) Draco AK–47 pistol.

“(IV) HCR AK–47 pistol.

“(V) IO Inc. Hellpup AK–47 pistol.

“(VI) Krinkov pistol.

“(VII) Mini Draco AK–47 pistol.

“(VIII) PAP M92 pistol.

“(IX) Yugo Krebs Krink pistol.

“(ii) All AR types, including the following:

“(I) American Spirit AR–15 pistol.

“(II) Bushmaster Carbon 15 pistol.

“(III) Chiappa Firearms M4 Pistol GEN II.

“(IV) CORE Rifle Systems CORE15 Roscoe pistol.

“(V) Daniel Defense MK18 pistol.

“(VI) DoubleStar Corporation AR pistol.

“(VII) DPMS AR–15 pistol.

“(VIII) Jesse James Nomad AR–15 pistol.

“(IX) Olympic Arms AR–15 pistol.

“(X) Osprey Armament MK–18 pistol.

“(XI) POF USA AR pistols.

“(XII) Rock River Arms LAR 15 pistol.

“(XIII) Uselton Arms Air-Lite M–4 pistol.

“(iii) Calico pistols.

“(iv) DSA SA58 PKP FAL pistol.

“(v) Encom MP–9 and MP–45.

“(vi) Heckler & Koch model SP–89 pistol.

“(vii) Intratec AB–10, TEC–22 Scorpion, TEC–9, and TEC–DC9.

“(viii) IWI Galil Ace pistol, UZI PRO pistol.

“(ix) Kel-Tec PLR 16 pistol.

“(x) All MAC types, including the following:

“(I) MAC–10.

“(II) MAC–11.

“(III) Masterpiece Arms MPA A930 Mini Pistol, MPA460 Pistol, MPA Tactical Pistol, and MPA Mini Tactical Pistol.

“(IV) Military Armament Corp. Ingram M–11.

“(V) Velocity Arms VMAC.

“(xi) Sig Sauer P556 pistol.

“(xii) Sites Spectre.

“(xiii) All Thompson types, including the following:

“(I) Thompson TA510D.

“(II) Thompson TA5.

“(xiv) All UZI types, including Micro-UZI.

“(J) All of the following shotguns, copies, duplicates, variants, or altered facsimiles with the capability of any such weapon thereof:

“(i) DERYA Anakon MC–1980, Anakon SD12.

“(ii) Doruk Lethal shotguns.

“(iii) Franchi LAW–12 and SPAS 12.

“(iv) All IZHMASH Saiga 12 types, including the following:

“(I) IZHMASH Saiga 12.

“(II) IZHMASH Saiga 12S.

“(III) IZHMASH Saiga 12S EXP–01.

“(IV) IZHMASH Saiga 12K.

“(V) IZHMASH Saiga 12K–030.

“(VI) IZHMASH Saiga 12K–040 Taktika.

“(v) Streetsweeper.

“(vi) Striker 12.

“(K) All belt-fed semiautomatic firearms, including TNW M2HB and FN M2495.

“(L) Any combination of parts from which a firearm described in subparagraphs (A) through (K) can be assembled.

“(M) The frame or receiver of a rifle or shotgun described in subparagraph (G), (H), (J), or (K).

“(41) The term ‘large capacity ammunition feeding device’—

“(A) means a magazine, belt, drum, feed strip, or similar device, including any such device joined or coupled with another in any manner, that has an overall capacity of, or that can be readily restored, changed, or converted to accept, more than 15 rounds of ammunition; and

“(B) does not include an attached tubular device designed to accept, and capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire ammunition.”.

(b) Related definitions.—Section 921(a) of title 18, United States Code, as amended by subsection (a), is amended by adding at the end the following:

“(42) The term ‘barrel shroud’—

“(A) means a shroud that is attached to, or partially or completely encircles, the barrel of a firearm so that the shroud protects the user of the firearm from heat generated by the barrel; and

“(B) does not include—

“(i) a slide that partially or completely encloses the barrel; or

“(ii) an extension of the stock along the bottom of the barrel which does not encircle or substantially encircle the barrel.

“(43) The term ‘detachable ammunition feeding device’ means an ammunition feeding device that can be removed from a firearm without disassembly of the firearm action.

“(44) The term ‘fixed ammunition feeding device’—

“(A) means an ammunition feeding device that is contained in and not removable from or is permanently fixed to the firearm; and

“(B) does not include an attached tubular device designed to accept, and capable of operating only with, .22 caliber rimfire ammunition.

“(45) The term ‘folding, telescoping, or detachable stock’ means a stock that folds, telescopes, detaches or otherwise operates to reduce the length, size, or any other dimension, or otherwise enhances the concealability, of a firearm.

“(46) The term ‘forward grip’ means a grip located forward of the trigger that functions as a pistol grip.

“(47) The term ‘grenade launcher’ means an attachment for use on a firearm that is designed to propel a grenade or other similar destructive device.

“(48) The term ‘permanently inoperable’ means a firearm which is incapable of discharging a shot by means of an explosive and incapable of being readily restored to a firing condition.

“(49) The term ‘pistol grip’ means a grip, a thumbhole stock or Thordsen-type grip or stock, or any other characteristic that can function as a grip.

“(50) The term ‘threaded barrel’ means a feature or characteristic that is designed in such a manner to allow for the attachment of a device such as a firearm silencer or a flash suppressor.

“(51) The term ‘qualified law enforcement officer’ has the meaning given the term in section 926B.

“(52) The term ‘grandfathered semiautomatic assault weapon’ means any semiautomatic assault weapon the importation, possession, sale, or transfer of which would be unlawful under section 922(v) but for the exception under paragraph (2) of such section.

“(53) The term ‘belt-fed semiautomatic firearm’ means any repeating firearm that—

“(A) utilizes a portion of the energy of a firing cartridge to extract the fired cartridge case and chamber the next round;

“(B) requires a separate pull of the trigger to fire each cartridge; and

“(C) has the capacity to accept a belt ammunition feeding device.”.

(a) In general.—Section 922 of title 18, United States Code, is amended—

(1) by inserting after subsection (u) the following:

“(v) (1) It shall be unlawful for a person to import, sell, manufacture, transfer, or possess, in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce, a semiautomatic assault weapon.

“(2) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to the possession, sale, or transfer of any semiautomatic assault weapon otherwise lawfully possessed under Federal law on the date of enactment of the Gun Violence Prevention and Community Safety Act of 2022.

“(3) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to any firearm that—

“(A) is manually operated by bolt, pump, lever, or slide action, except for a shotgun described in section 921(a)(40)(G);

“(B) has been rendered permanently inoperable;

“(C) is an antique firearm, as defined in section 921 of this title; or

“(D) is only capable of firing rimfire ammunition.

“(4) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to—

“(A) the importation for, manufacture for, sale to, transfer to, or possession by—

“(i) the United States, or a department or agency of the United States; or

“(ii) a State, or a department, agency, or political subdivision of a State;

“(B) the sale to, transfer to, or possession by a qualified law enforcement officer employed by—

“(i) the United States, or a department or agency of the United States; or

“(ii) a State, or a department, agency, or political subdivision of a State,

for purposes of law enforcement (whether on or off duty);

“(C) the sale to, transfer to, or possession by a campus law enforcement officer for purposes of law enforcement (whether on or off duty);

“(D) the importation for, or sale or transfer to a licensee under title I of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.) for purposes of establishing and maintaining an on-site physical protection system and security organization required by Federal law, or possession by an employee or contractor of such licensee on-site for such purposes or off-site for purposes of licensee-authorized training or transportation of nuclear materials;

“(E) the possession, by an individual who is retired in good standing from service with a law enforcement agency and is not otherwise prohibited from receiving a firearm, of a semiautomatic assault weapon—

“(i) sold or transferred to the individual by the agency upon such retirement; or

“(ii) that the individual purchased, or otherwise obtained, for official use before such retirement;

“(F) the importation, sale, manufacture, transfer, or possession of a semiautomatic assault weapon by a licensed manufacturer or licensed importer for the purposes of testing or experimentation authorized by the Attorney General; or

“(G) the importation, sale, manufacture, transfer, or possession of a firearm specified in Appendix A to this section, as such firearm was manufactured on the date of introduction of the Gun Violence Prevention and Community Safety Act of 2022.

“(5) For purposes of paragraph (4)(C), the term ‘campus law enforcement officer’ means an individual who is—

“(A) employed by a private institution of higher education that is eligible for funding under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 et seq.);

“(B) responsible for the prevention or investigation of crime involving injury to persons or property, including apprehension or detention of persons for such crimes;

“(C) authorized by Federal, State, or local law to carry a firearm, execute search warrants, and make arrests; and

“(D) recognized, commissioned, or certified by a government entity as a law enforcement officer.

“(6) The Attorney General shall establish and maintain, in a timely manner, a record of the make, model, and, if available, date of manufacture of any semiautomatic assault weapon which the Attorney General is made aware has been used in relation to a crime under Federal or State law, and the nature and circumstances of the crime involved, including the outcome of relevant criminal investigations and proceedings. The Attorney General shall annually submit a copy of the record established under this paragraph to Congress and make the record available to the general public.

“(w) (1) It shall be unlawful for a person to import, sell, manufacture, transfer, or possess, in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce, a large capacity ammunition feeding device.

“(2) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to the possession of any large capacity ammunition feeding device otherwise lawfully possessed on or before the date of enactment of the Gun Violence Prevention and Community Safety Act of 2022.

“(3) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to—

“(A) the importation for, manufacture for, sale to, transfer to, or possession by—

“(i) the United States, or a department or agency of the United States; or

“(ii) a State, or a department, agency, or political subdivision of a State;

“(B) the sale to, transfer to, or possession by a qualified law enforcement officer employed by—

“(i) the United States, or a department or agency of the United States; or

“(ii) a State, or a department, agency, or political subdivision of a State,

for purposes of law enforcement (whether on or off duty);

“(C) the sale to, transfer to, or possession by a campus law enforcement officer for purposes of law enforcement (whether on or off duty);

“(D) the importation for, or sale or transfer to a licensee under title I of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.) for purposes of establishing and maintaining an on-site physical protection system and security organization required by Federal law, or possession by an employee or contractor of such licensee on-site for such purposes or off-site for purposes of licensee-authorized training or transportation of nuclear materials;

“(E) the possession, by an individual who is retired in good standing from service with a law enforcement agency and is not otherwise prohibited from receiving ammunition, of a large capacity ammunition feeding device—

“(i) sold or transferred to the individual by the agency upon such retirement; or

“(ii) that the individual purchased, or otherwise obtained, for official use before such retirement; or

“(F) the importation, sale, manufacture, transfer, or possession of any large capacity ammunition feeding device by a licensed manufacturer or licensed importer for the purposes of testing or experimentation authorized by the Attorney General.

“(4) For purposes of paragraph (3)(C), the term ‘campus law enforcement officer’ means an individual who is—

“(A) employed by a private institution of higher education that is eligible for funding under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 et seq.);

“(B) responsible for the prevention or investigation of crime involving injury to persons or property, including apprehension or detention of persons for such crimes;

“(C) authorized by Federal, State, or local law to carry a firearm, execute search warrants, and make arrests; and

“(D) recognized, commissioned, or certified by a government entity as a law enforcement officer.”; and

(2) by adding at the end the following:

“(aa) Secure storage or safety device requirement for grandfathered semiautomatic assault weapons.—It shall be unlawful for any person, other than a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer, to store or keep under the dominion or control of that person any grandfathered semiautomatic assault weapon that the person knows, or has reasonable cause to believe, will be accessible to an individual prohibited from receiving or possessing a firearm under subsection (g), (n), or (x), or any provision of State law, unless the grandfathered semiautomatic assault weapon is—

“(1) carried on the person, or within such close proximity that the person can readily retrieve and use the grandfathered semiautomatic assault weapon as if the grandfathered semiautomatic assault weapon were carried on the person; or

“(2) locked by a secure gun storage or safety device that the prohibited individual has no ability to access.”.

(b) Identification markings for semiautomatic assault weapons.—Section 923(i) of title 18, United States Code, is amended by adding at the end the following: “The serial number of any semiautomatic assault weapon manufactured after the date of enactment of the Gun Violence Prevention and Community Safety Act of 2022 shall clearly show the date on which the weapon was manufactured or made, legibly and conspicuously engraved or cast on the weapon, and such other identification as the Attorney General shall by regulations prescribe.”.

(c) Identification markings for large capacity ammunition feeding devices.—Section 923(i) of title 18, United States Code, as amended by subsection (b), is amended by adding at the end the following: “A large capacity ammunition feeding device manufactured after the date of enactment of the Gun Violence Prevention and Community Safety Act of 2022 shall be identified by a serial number and the date on which the device was manufactured or made, legibly and conspicuously engraved or cast on the device, and such other identification as the Attorney General shall by regulations prescribe.”.

(d) Seizure and forfeiture of large capacity ammunition feeding devices.—Subsection (d) of section 924 of title 18, United States Code, is amended—

(1) in paragraph (1)—

(A) by inserting “or large capacity ammunition feeding device” after “firearm or ammunition” each time it appears;

(B) by inserting “or large capacity ammunition feeding device” after “firearms or ammunition” each time it appears; and

(C) by striking “or (k)” and inserting “(k), (r), (v), or (w)”;

(2) in paragraph (2)(C), by inserting “or large capacity ammunition feeding devices” after “firearms or quantities of ammunition”; and

(3) in paragraph (3)(E), by inserting “922(r), 922(v), 922(w),” after “922(n),”.

(e) Appendix A.—Section 922 of title 18, United States Code, is amended by adding at the end the following: